roany poany Posted March 12, 2010 Report Share Posted March 12, 2010 Does anyone here know how to use the formula to calculate the volume of a sphere? If so, could you calculate the volume of glass in the following… ½” marble. ¾” marble 1” marble I tried to cipher this for a few hours and got a headache. I assume the measurements should be changed to decimals /cubic inches/cubic millimeters/ or something? I’m curious as to how many ½” marbles it would take to equal the volume of a 1” marble. And you know what they say…there are no stupid questions, just stupid people. thanks Post script: a 5/8" would be nice too, if it aint too much trouble. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Scoop Posted March 12, 2010 Report Share Posted March 12, 2010 My head already hurts.... Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cat's eye jack Posted March 12, 2010 Report Share Posted March 12, 2010 the formula for finding the volume of a sphere is V=(4/3)TTR to the 3rd power...V is volume,TT is PI or (3.14) and R stands for radius. this is from my son. heck, i still don't even know my times table lol. thanks, jack Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
m!b$ Posted March 12, 2010 Report Share Posted March 12, 2010 Here are the ridiculous answers I come up with. All answers are rounded to the fourth decimal. Volume of a 1/2" marble = .0654" Volume of a 5/8" marble = .1278" Volume of a 3/4" marble = .2208" Volume of a 1" marble = .5233" My guess is it takes roughly (8) 1/2" marbles to equal the volume of a 1" marble. (Steph is the resident mathematician. She'll give you the real answers...) Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
BobandPat Posted March 12, 2010 Report Share Posted March 12, 2010 How about 7.994961063 1/2 in. mibs to equal one 1 in. mib. :-) Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bermar Posted March 12, 2010 Report Share Posted March 12, 2010 Great thread, however you might want to double check the above calculation. I get 7.994961064 1/2 in. mibs to equal one 1 in. mib. :-) The difference might have to do with the weather. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ann Posted March 12, 2010 Report Share Posted March 12, 2010 And we need to know this because . . . (OK, so I freeze when confronted with anything more than addition and subtraction. Of whole numbers.) Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Scoop Posted March 12, 2010 Report Share Posted March 12, 2010 I'm with Ann on both points!!! signed, Curious but Frustrated in NH.... LOL Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Steph Posted March 12, 2010 Report Share Posted March 12, 2010 I get exactly 8 one-half inch mibs to a single 1 inch mib. I think the right formula for how many smaller marbles match the 1" mib volume might be 1 divided by the cube of the smaller radius. But I haint double checked that. Edit: yup, pretty sure. The 4/3 pi stuff cancels out. Don't need to worry about any estimates of pi. Double edit: nope, I said that wrong. It was 1 divided by the cube of the smaller diameter. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
psia-antique Posted March 12, 2010 Report Share Posted March 12, 2010 I get exactly 8 one-half inch mibs to a single 1 inch mib. I think the right formula for how many smaller marbles match the 1" mib volume might be 1 divided by the cube of the smaller radius. But I haint double checked that. Edit: yup, pretty sure. The 4/3 pi stuff cancels out. Don't need to worry about any estimates of pi. Cool...how about 3/4 TO 1" AND 5/8 TO 1"? Need to know? fun trivia Have often wondered about this because when 2 1" mibs wereput together to make a Jumbo they came out between 1&1/16 to 1&3/8, but most were at the small end of the scale... Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Steph Posted March 12, 2010 Report Share Posted March 12, 2010 5/8 ---> . . . 512/125 = 4.096 3/4 ---> . . . 64/27 = approx 2.37 maybe. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
psia-antique Posted March 12, 2010 Report Share Posted March 12, 2010 5/8 ---> . . . 512/125 = 4.096 3/4 ---> . . . 64/27 = approx 2.37 maybe withonly 8 or 9 fingers for counting, the relationship between 3/4 and 1" looks to me to be 3 or 4 to 1...no real clue what it is though. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
psia-antique Posted March 12, 2010 Report Share Posted March 12, 2010 Great thread, however you might want to double check the above calculation. I get 7.994961064 1/2 in. mibs to equal one 1 in. mib. :-) The difference might have to do with the weather. You are probably correct because your calculator has a Higher Power. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Scoop Posted March 12, 2010 Report Share Posted March 12, 2010 Yup.... This is how we know when it's a slow news day in the marble world!!!! (I AM impressed though!!! LOL) Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Steph Posted March 12, 2010 Report Share Posted March 12, 2010 withonly 8 or 9 fingers for counting, the relationship between 3/4 and 1" looks to me to be 3 or 4 to 1...no real clue what it is though. I'm believing my figure of 2.37 three-fourths inch mibs to 1 one-inch mib. I find it kind of mind boggling though. Two 3/4" mibs fitting inside a 1" mib? Check out the 7/8 figure. (8x8x8)/(7x7x7) is about 1.49 So it would take half again as much glass to move up from a 7/8" mib to a 1" mib. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Steph Posted March 12, 2010 Report Share Posted March 12, 2010 Yup.... This is how we know when it's a slow news day in the marble world!!!! (I AM impressed though!!! LOL) Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Scoop Posted March 12, 2010 Report Share Posted March 12, 2010 More great ways to hurt your head on a Friday morning...... Bayes Theorem Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
psia-antique Posted March 12, 2010 Report Share Posted March 12, 2010 I'm believing my figure of 2.37 three-fourths inch mibs to 1 one-inch mib. I find it kind of mind boggling though. Two 3/4" mibs fitting inside a 1" mib? Check out the 7/8 figure. (8x8x8)/(7x7x7) is about 1.49 So it would take half again as much glass to move up from a 7/8" mib to a 1" mib. Neat,Thank you. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MARBLEMISER Posted March 12, 2010 Report Share Posted March 12, 2010 If we're talking PI ,make mine 4/3 Apple with a 2 1/2 in. scoop of chocolate ice cream. The PI heated slightly to help melt the ice cream>> IMHO marblemiser Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
BobandPat Posted March 12, 2010 Report Share Posted March 12, 2010 Steph is absolutely right.. It will take approximately (8) 1/2 inch, (4 3/32) 5/8 inch, (2 3/8) 3/4 inch, and (1 1/2) 7/8 inch marbles to make a one inch marble. I have to take a nap now. :-) Bob Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
roany poany Posted March 12, 2010 Author Report Share Posted March 12, 2010 Great work yall, this is what I was looking for…thanky thanky. The reason I asked was--> I was reading in M!b$ “Big Jabo” thread where she asked why Jabo didn’t make more big uns. Ron replied that the cost of materials (glass and such ) would rise substantially . I was wondering exactly by how much. I started to ask there, but didn’t want to fly her thread to Cuba, so I hit the new topic button. So it would take half again as much glass to move up from a 7/8" mib to a 1" mib. half again as much or one and a half again as much? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Steph Posted March 12, 2010 Report Share Posted March 12, 2010 1 and 1/2 total. One 7/8" marble. Plus one half of another one. Glue it on top. Then smooth it out so there aren't any visible seams. Make sure the glue has the same COE as the glass. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
psia-antique Posted March 12, 2010 Report Share Posted March 12, 2010 1 and 1/2 total. One 7/8" marble. Plus one half of another one. Glue it on top. Then smooth it out so there aren't any visible seams. Make sure the glue has the same COE as the glass. Neat stuff. I get what has been said and appreciate the same. One question still...Jumbos...how do two 1" marbles equal 1 1/16 to 1 3/8 ?...and I've watched them being made...bottom line why don't 1"+1" = 2" Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Steph Posted March 12, 2010 Report Share Posted March 12, 2010 3 dimensions! A 1 inch cube + a 1 inch cube is not a two inch cube. Two true 1 inch marbles added together and rounded into a sphere would give . . . uh, I'll be back. [space reserved. I get kinda panicky at this stage. ;-)] edit: Two true 1 inch marbles would give about 1.26 inches . . . (cube root of 2) Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ann Posted March 12, 2010 Report Share Posted March 12, 2010 Neat stuff. I get what has been said and appreciate the same. One question still...Jumbos...how do two 1" marbles equal 1 1/16 to 1 3/8 ?...and I've watched them being made...bottom line why don't 1"+1" = 2" Now THAT'S the interesting question! Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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